Chicago Bears cornerback Bryce Callahan will be one of the most coveted defensive free agents on the open market when free agency begins on March 13. As a result, he’s going to cash in with what should be a massive multi-year contract.
ESPN recently predicted the contract value for every team’s biggest free agent, and Callahan’s projected deal is quite the payday.
Projected contract: Three years, $27 million with $17 million guaranteed
If teams are going to spend on slot receivers, it makes sense that slot cornerbacks would be worth something as well. Callahan has been a valuable member of the Bears’ strong secondary but could price himself out of their range.
A three-year deal sounds about right for Callahan, and $9 million per season would put him on the exact same wage scale as Prince Amukamara, who Chicago signed last offseason to the same three-year, $27 million deal that’s predicted for Callahan.
When put in that context, it seems like a reasonable contract for Callahan considering his high-end ability when he’s on the field. The biggest problem with Callahan, however, is his injury history.
Callahan’s never played more than 13 games in a single season; he played that many last year, which marked a career high. Prior to 2018, the most games he’s played in a season was 12 in 2017.
Regardless, the only way to combat today’s high-flying passing game is with quality corners, including in the slot where Callahan excels. Assuming his string of bad luck with injuries is over, his next team (which could still be the Bears) will get a quality player whose best years are ahead.
